They would have done when they were Kaleds (or Dals). Why bother to chuck it out?
Why the inconsistency with Thal travelling? It is stated that the Thals have been travelling for four years, but by the next episode the figure is just over a year.
The Thals live a mostly primitive existence in a post-apocalyptic wasteland; their ability to keep track of time to any degree of accuracy is presumably a bit suspect. This, granted, is quite an extreme gap in between times, but it may have felt longer to some of them than others.
Why does Ian wait for Temmosus to finish his speech before warning the Thals that it's an ambush?
Given that the doors of the city are electrically powered, how can the Thals get out at the end after turning the power off?
In "The Daleks" (First Doctor serial), the Thals describe the Daleks as being "great thinkers and philosophers". How could that be if, as stated at other times, they were created for the sole purpose of wiping out everything non-Dalek?
They were probably referring to the Kaleds there. For reasons that should be obvious, there would be significantly less cultural crossover and survival-of-encounters between Thals and Daleks than there would have been between Thals and Kaleds, so in absence of other sources of info, they probably (mistakenly) attributed characteristics of the Kaleds to their Dalek successors.
"Asylum of the Daleks" revealed that they do have a concept of beauty(aka pure hatred), and their Absolute Xenophobe behaviour is almost religious in how they've embraced it. These Daleks didn't know of other races and the Kaled race was relatively new in their memory, so they probably had some culture back then, but got rid of that they found out there was far more needed to kill.
The Dalek Invasion of the Earth
Why is the Dalek in the river? To find humans.
Why did the Daleks locate their mine in Bedfordshire rather than somewhere where the Earth's crust is thin?
My guess is that they have mines all over the place; the Bedfordshire one is essentially their mine in Britain, and they're coordinating all of the mining efforts simultaneously.
Frankenstein's Monster rips off its bandages, but changes into a jacket before the next scene. There might be two Monsters.
The Daleks' robot 'duplicate' of the Doctor, far from being 'indistinguishable from the original', actually looks so different that you wonder if they've got the right person.
I think the duplicate was played by Hartnell's stunt double.
The Daleks Master Plan
Why do the delegates look different to those in Mission to the Unknown, and then look different later in the serial? (I already know they changed actors, I wonder if there can be an in-story explanation.) Particularly prominent is Trantis, who seems to have tendrils on his face but loses them later.
We know nothing of Trantis' people. Maybe their tendrils are like antlers, and they periodically shed them.
Are the titles of the delegates actually their names or where they come from? There is mention of the planet Gearon. There is Zephon, Master of the 5th Galaxy, however a Dalek refers to him as the Master of Zephon.
What happened to Warrien, the tall delegate in the white protective suit?
Perhaps he was plotting against the Daleks and was killed for this.
Or he was sent on behalf of Zephon who couldn't come at the time.
How were the Daleks exactly planning to use the Time Destructor?
The Doctor just turned the Time Destructor on when he used it. It would be like having a powerful bomb and just letting it of. The Daleks could have made sure only some of the Time Destructor's power was let out at a time, and directed at certain areas.
Why exactly were the Daleks prepared to kill the delegates before the Invasion of the Solar System?
The Evil of the Daleks
Why not just kidnap the Doctor and Jamie?
Since Jamie is so essential to Dalek plans, why are the traps set for him so lethal?
How do they know he's the Doctor's companion anyway? Unseen adventure?
The Doctor's been busy at Gatwick for a while. Waterfield's agents probably spotted Jamie and reported back.
Colony in Space
In a Third Doctor story Colony in Space, the Master gets angry at an ancient alien for not allowing him to use powerful weapon to destroy the universe. He then points the gun at the alien which is then suddenly magicked out of the air. What. The. Fuck?!
It's hardly the only weapon in Doctor Who which completely destroys the target.
Day of the Daleks
Is the 22nd century Dalek invasion shown in "Day of the Daleks" the same one shown in "Dalek Invasion of Earth"? If so, has history been rewritten or did they just spend four episodes running around for no real reason?
The "Day of the Daleks" invasion happened in the wake of a nuclear war during the UNIT years, whenever they are. The other invasion occurred 10 years before the Doctor arrived, much later, so they're not the same invasion, conveniently for Susan. If they'd been the same invasion, then when the third Doctor stopped it from happening she'd find her home and probable husband erased from history, quite possibly leaving her in Limbo.
But would "The Dalek Invasion of Earth" have happened if the 3rd Doctor hadn't mucked around? And doesn't that pretty much make "Day of the Daleks" pointless?
AHistory: A History of the Doctor Who Universe says the "The Dalek Invasion of Earth" happened, then, following their defeat, the Daleks travelled back in time to create the future seen in "Day of the Daleks", then the Third Doctor "unhappened" that future, putting history back on course.
For the information of the less Who-savy AHistory in no way counts as Expanded Universe canon, let alone official canon. I just wouldn't anyone to confuse this with Word of God. (Very well-researched book, however.) Anyway, the invasion in "Day of the Daleks" explicitly depends on a world in which World War III starts in the 20th century. and yet a throwaway line in "Remembrance of the Daleks" says that the other 22nd century invasion (seen in "The Dalek Invasion of Earth") will happen, and the Expanded Universe confirms it.
Actually, Day of the Daleks, which is a lot closer to "official canon" mentions that they travelled back to the 21st century in the aftermath of World War III (which as far as I can tell, only starts in the 1970s, which was later prevented) following a PREVIOUS thwarting of their Earth invasion. Both stories are set in the same century, but the time the Daleks have occupied Earth is vastly different. Also, the conclusion of the story negated the "Day" invasion from having ever happened.
The Three Doctors
Now, I'm not denying people are generally stunned by entering the TARDIS; they say things ranging from "it's nonsense" to "I'm in my nightie", but is the exact phrase "it's bigger on the inside" used that often, or is it that sort of thing that "always" happens like "monsters made out of bubblewrap" and "60s and 70s companions breaking their ankles", but as-described-exactly is only documented a handful of times and rhetoric for something else?
Probably — but then, seeing as the most obvious thing for someone to think when they first enter the TARDIS doors is "it's bigger on the inside!" and it's pretty obvious when they are thinking or reacting to that, it's perhaps understandable for the Doctor / production team to assume it happens more frequently than it does; the basic reaction's always the same even if the exact words aren't always spoken.
Why did the Third Doctor act suprised when he met his past selves. With them being his past selves and all he should have remembered that moment and knew he, meaning his past selves, were coming.
It's been pretty much established that, in multi-Doctor stories, only the most recent Doctor has a clear memory of events, and then only after the adventure is over and everyone is back in their proper places. Up until then, the Doctors have a vague memory of something happening, but it isn't really clear. Afterwards, some memories remain clear to earlier Doctors (like Two and Three not getting along), but not much else.
Planet of the Daleks
There's an old Third Doctor episode, "Planet of the Daleks", where the Doctor stops a frozen Dalek army from reviving themselves by triggering an "ice volcano". Apparently, this floods the cavern they were in with "molten ice". I might be missing something, by isn't molten ice essentially water? An entire army of unstoppable death creatures were put out of commission by getting a bit wet?
What they say in the episode is that it's an allotrope with a much lower freezing point, so that it's liquid at sub-zero temperatures. The Daleks were being brought out of hibernation by increasing their temperature; immersing them in supercold allotropic water reverses that process.
So something like liquid nitrogen, then?
More like the cryomagma expelled by Real Life cryovolcanoes on outer-planet moons like Titan, Enceladus and Triton.
Death to the Daleks
The Daleks practice their replacement machine guns on a model TARDIS. Where they got it from is never explained. Standard issue to encourage hatred for the Doctor?
What happened to the Exxilon in the TARDIS after Sarah knocks it out? Is it still in there?
Genesis of the Daleks
If the Kaleds can get into the Thal dome so easily why the attrition war?
Harry and Sarah getting attacked by Mutants before they can get to the Kaled City shows it is still a dangerous trek across the territory in between to get to the tunnels. Perhaps a few could do it, but not an army.
What happened to Kavell, the Kaled scientist who frees Harry, Sarah and Gharman? He disappears between Parts Five and Six. He's last seen midway through Part Five leaving with Gharman, but isn't with him and the other Kaleds when they're confronting Davros in Part Six. Unlike other MIA Kaleds (Ravon and Tane especially), it can't be argued he died in the Kaled dome when the Thals blew it up, since that happened a couple of episodes earlier.
People often state that the fourth Doctor refused to wipe out the Daleks. But this is not what happened at all! After watching the serial there are two points where The Doctor could have blown up the Dalek embryo chamber. The first time he hesitates, unsure, before he can make up his mind he is told that Davros has given in and as such the explosives would be needless vandalism. The second time, after the Daleks start mass killing, he was going to until he was forced to take cover and the Dalek chasing him completes the circuit and kills them anyway. So not only did he not refuse to commit genocide (he never made up his mind) but all he needed to do was in fact done!
Well, in the second instance, he wired up the explosives, but then hesitated before touching the wires together to set them off. He talked to Sarah and Harry about the moral choice before him, and when the Dalek appeared, he could quite easily have touched the two wires together - it would only have taken a fraction of a second - but instead elected to drop the wires and run. It's deliberately left ambiguous, I think, but there's a case for saying that he refused to commit that genocide in dropping the wires rather than touching them.
And the reasons he gives for hesitating are more complicated than just "refusing to commit genocide"—he explains that many formerly warring races were forced into alliance by the Dalek threat, and so without the Daleks the whole subsequent history of the universe could be altered in radical and possibly very unpleasant ways.
Furthermore, his mission's parameters included introducing some weakness into the Daleks to lessen their threat. Although he didn't intend to, fanon says that he did so by enabling Davros to survive when his creations turned on him. When he was later revived by the Daleks, he proved a profoundly divisive element that caused violent schisms that plagued the Daleks for centuries.
Something also usually forgotten: he also kept the Daleks entombed for an extra few thousand years. I don't know about you, but I think most civilizations would put up a bit more of a fight if they've had an extra millenia or so of existance and progress.
Though Asylum of the Daleks implies that pre-Genesis Dalek stories weren't wiped.
Good that someone else pointed this out. I will draw your attention to this analysis I found. http://www.historyvortex.org/Dalek3.html While I don't agree with all of it I still think it is a good analysis of Dalek history.
In "Genesis of the Daleks", if the Kaleds want to keep racial purity and send all mutations to the wastelands, why haven't they exiled Davros? I mean, he obviously isn't a pure Kaled.
Davros is a pure Kaled; he's just a horribly disfigured one.
I'm currently watching "Destiny of the Daleks", and he is identified as humanoid mutant.
The Thousand-Year War used nuclear weapons. It's quite possible that whatever made Davros an insane potato happened to be radioactive and screwed around with his DNA
Terror of the Zygons
If The Ark In Space, The Sontaran Experiment, Genesis of the Daleks, Revenge of the Cybermen, and Terror of the Zygons are continuous, then Sarah and Harry have been active for far too long without rest.
Not when they all happen within 16 hours (their relative time). Maybe they are in (almost) real-time, making them around 7,5 hours long.
They also travel by TARDIS between Revenge of the Cybermen and Terror of the Zygons — for all we know, it took them long enough to get to Scotland for Sarah and Harry to crash and have a nice sleep on the TARDIS on the way.
Also, Sarah changes out of her waterproof trousers into a skirt for the last scene of the Sontaran Experiment. Presumably the gap there was enough for them to grab forty winks.
Pyramids Of Mars
If the Pyramid imprisoning Sutekh was on Earth, why did he bother going through the portal to England? Couldn't he have walked out of the entrance Scarman created and started his omnicidal rampage from there?
It wasn't on Earth-it was on Mars, so he had to go through the portal. There was no other choice. I'd advise you to watch the episode again.
A hilarious moment comes when Sarah Jane has disguised the Doctor as one of the robots. Which begs the question-how the hell did they fit his massive curly hair into the disguise?
In Logopolis, why doesn't the Doctor go back in time to before the entropy field is created to prevent the destruction of a large chunk of the universe?
Perhaps a more important though smaller scale version of the same question: If Rose is stranded because he can't cross over after the rift closes, why can't he go back in time to a day when the rift was open, cross over then, and then return to the present on the other side? (He'd have to modify his Tardis to work there, but it sure beats burning up a star to send a message through when the rift's not open.)
Also, quite possibly a Timey-Wimey Ball thing, where he can't actually go back through, no matter when he goes.
Look, people, if the Doctor could do this, he would just do it every single episode. Which would be a rather boring series. In the "classic" series sometimes they would mention the "Blimovitch Limitation Effect" whenever a character would say something like "why can't you just use time travel to . . .(whatever)". In the Fox TV Movie, at the end he goes back in time to save the lives of his companions, which is one of the many things that made us die-hard Doctor Who fans very angry at the Fox TV movie. In the "new" series we had the episode "Father's Day" which showed what happens if you muck around to much with time. —KEVP
Come on. We have no idea what the hell was going on in the Movie. We see the words "Temporal Orbit" on the monitor, and then magic glowyness emerges from the eye of harmony and flows into Grace and Lee. The Doctor doesn't do anything. Saying that he went back in time to save them is a big stretch. Exactly what the connection is to "temporal orbit" is never made clear, but the visuals don't indicate that the Doctor somehow rewound time. Some confluence of "Temporal Orbit", flying with the eye of harmony open, and the TARDIS being a "sentimental old thing" caused it to puke up magic resurrection-sauce. Timey-Wimey Ball.
Watch the revival scene in the TV Movie, then watch The Time Of The Doctor, Matt Smith's last episode. The visual effect for the revival energy and the regeneration energy look very similar. In both cases, energy from the Eye of Harmony was used to restore life to someone. In the first case, the TARDIS used it to revive Grace and Lee, and in the second case, the Time Lords used it to give the Doctor a whole new life cycle.
The Faction Paradox novel "The Book of the War" (basically a big encyclopaedia regarding this time war between The Enemy and the Time Lords Great Houses) has a neat little entry about the "Protocols of Linearity", about how going back into Gallifrey's The Homeworld's own past may cause the universe to unravel. So, yeah, Timey-Wimey Ball, is the answer.
There's also always the possiblity that the rift exists in it's own moment, separate from the rest of time. Once it closes it is, and always has been, closed.
The Doctor has actually said that once he's involved in the events of a certain place and time, he can't just go back and change things he's already done. Which makes sense, really. Think of it this way: Let's say the Doctor goes back in time and stops the Master from turning on the silence. Now he doesn't need to go back in time because he went back in time. The Doctor has now fundamentally changed his own past actions, making his current circumstances impossible, and now he's got a paradox on his hands. Typically if the Doctor has a problem to solve, he needs to use his brain, in this case, adapting the Logopolitans' program for use in the Earth's Pharos computer. And with respect to the people who died, unfortunately, there's really nothing the Doctor can do for them without screwing up the timeline. He can't always save everyone, no matter how much he wants to. If you boil it all down, trying to come up with a solution in real time and just going back in time to prevent the problem from happening is the choice between possible death and certain death. Which makes you wonder what the hell he was thinking when he went back the second time at the beginning of Father's Day...
When Tom Baker had his last moment as the Doctor, we see the Keeper rising into the air as he changed into the Peter Davidson incarnation. One of the characters says something along the lines of "The Keeper was the Doctor all along." What did they mean by that? How did all of that work? I came in mid-way through the Baker-era so maybe I missed an earlier episode that would've explained that.
First of all, he is called the Watcher. But no, he was never explained. All we know is that he is some sort of manifestation that started to exist during the Fourth Doctor's final days and aided him in his regeneration. We have seen OTHER such creatures though, for example; the Observer who was a Watcher for the Doctors friend Rallon and the Doctor's mentor, K'anpo Rimpoche had Cho Je. My idea is that they are extra lines of defence against death. See, regeneration doesn't bring Time Lords BACK from the dead, it saves them from the BRINK of death. So I like to think of them as little pockets of Regeneration energy given form so that if the Time Lord that created them DOES die they can bring them back. Of course, that is ALL Wild Mass Guessing.
It's been a while since I've seen them, but I was sure that the Watcher was the Doctor from the future, come to warn his past self about the dangers he was about to face. He merged with the Fourth Doctor at the end because, by then, time had been changed so that the Watcher's timeline never existed.
Apparently the Watcher is meant to be a manifestation of the First, Second and Thirds doctors.
Actually, a manifestation of the Fifth. Four mentions something to the effect that he has "dipped into the future." Not the past. And apparently this was unclear when they edited the episode, so Sarah Sutton (Nyssa) recorded an extra line cold to voice over the "merger" at the end. Not understanding the context, she emphasized this as "So he was the Doctor all the time!" instead of "So he was the Doctor all the time!" ...and based on this JBM entry, it is still confusing.
The Watcher was not the Keeper but, as mentioned in the bullets above, a manifestation of the Doctor's future regeneration, created ahead of his regeneration to help the fourth Doctor regenerate when the time came. Why this regeneration should be particularly difficult for the fourth Doctor is never explained, since all he does is smash himself by falling to the ground from a great height, but the difficult regeneration is mentioned in the following story, "Castrovalva". Some fans have theorized that the fourth Doctor held onto his regeneration too long and that was why he needed outside assistance. Further, there is precedent. in the third Doctor's final story, "Planet of the Spiders", we meet one of the Doctor's teachers, who is posing as the Abbot of a British Buddhist monastery. The Abbot is very old and dies in this story, but one of the Abbot's top students, Cho Je, reveals himself to be a projection of the Abbot, who then becomes the Abbot's next incarnation after the Abbot regenerates. I've always assumed that the Watcher was on this model.
The only real difference between Cho-Je and the Watcher is that K'Anpo was consciously projecting an image of his next incarnation, with the effect that Cho-Je looked exactly like K'Anpo became, whereas the Watcher was a subconscious projection of the Fifth Doctor, and thus a poorly-formed one.
The Doctor spent the night in Castrovalva. He was tired, very ill and possibly slightly drugged. Why the hell didn't the Master just kill him then and there, when it would have been really easy, instead of waiting until after breakfast the next day? Does he just like to make things difficult for himself or something?
No, he needs the Doctor alive in order to have fun humiliating him. E.g. Turning the Doctor into Dobby in Series3 finale.
The Master's just like any other evil arch-nemesis; he's an insecure egotist who can't handle the fact that the Doctor has so consistently proved himself superior by foiling his plans and beating him so many times. It's not enough to just kill him; the Master has to make the Doctor suffer, take absolutely everything away from him in order to prove once and for all that the Master is the better man. And furthermore, the Doctor has to be very much aware that he's lost for the Master to be satisfied. Where's the satisfaction in killing him when he's asleep and none the wiser?
This is tehe Master we're talking about. The Rani said he'd get dizzy if he tried to walk in a straight line.
Arc of Infinity
Omega in his antimatter form needs to bond with the Doctor in order to re-enter the normal universe from his alternate dimension. So why does his monster minion not need to do this, as presumably it would be composed of antimatter, and how can Tegan, her cousin Colin Frazer and his friend cross over to the other dimension? Presumably anyone or anything wanting to cross over from one dimension to the other would have the disastrous effect predicted in the case of Omega, judging by what happens when matter and antimatter collide in Real Life?
In "The Three Doctors" Omega can send other things to the normal universe by shielding them using his own will. The reason he can't leave the same way is that he wouldn't be able to use his will to shield himself once he left. There is also the problem that he no longer exists as anything except his will which probably contributes to why he has to bond with the Doctor to get a corporeal existence.
Resurection of the Daleks
Despite having spent his time in suspended animation he has been able to make his mind control device and has learnt enough about Time Lords to deduce that they're 'all soft'.
The mind control device just seems to be part of his travel device; chances are, he's had it all along, but this is the first time he's had the need or opportunity to use it on-screen — ever wondered why Nyder was so insanely devoted and sycophantic to Davros?
Why are the cylinders of Movellan virus left on 1984 Earth, a planet that the Daleks want to invade? It's a bit like the Allies hiding an atom bomb in Berlin.
And worst of all- Davros is still alive how? Didn't the Daleks exterminate him in "Genesis of the Daleks"? Same with his survival after getting infected with the virus developed to kill the Daleks?
He survived in Genesis of the Daleks because his secondary life support system kicked in. He survived the Dalek virus because he is not a Dalek.
The Mark of the Rani
What about in The Mark of the Rani When the key to The Doctor's TARDIS fits and works in the lock to The Rani's TARDIS? With no explanation how that possibly works.
TARDIS keys are most likly less "*TARDIS keys* and more *TARDIS* keys. That is, they are keys unlock TARDIS(s).
The Doctor's key unlocked the Rani's TARDIS but not the Master's. When the Time Lords were trying to break into the Doctor's TARDIS they mentioned different keys for different types of TARDIS. That may mean that the Rani's TARDIS is a model that has the same key type as the Doctor's and the Master's isn't.
Okay, no seriously, how did the Doctor and Herbert escape the explosion?
Revelation of the Daleks
Why does Davros drop the polystyrene statue full of fake blood onto the Doctor?
Why isn't the flower being used already?
It seems clear that nobody at Tranquil Repose is aware of its usefulness. (Maybe Davros, but why would he tell anyone?)
Davros does make some mention of turning the Doctor into a Dalek, but why not just capture him the instant he arrives?
To gloat about his victories, of course.
When captured, how does the Doctor know that Davros is still alive? (Natasha and Grigory can't possibly have told him, because they don't know either.)
The Doctor mentions in passing that the spaceship in Resurrection had crashed, "I thought with you on board". His dull surprise seems to indicate that he's used to Davros escaping death at this point.
Trial of a Time Lord
In Terror Of The Vervoids, how can the Time Lords charge the Doctor for a crime he hasn't actually committed yet?
Wibbly wobbly, Timey Wimey.
I know what you mean, because doing something like that would cause some sort of paradox. Like, if you went back in time and killed Hitler before he did all the terribly things, then he'd never be able to do it. It's confusing.
The trial is a sham. The Doctor hadn't encountered/killed the Vervoids yet, and the Valeyard/Time Lords cherry-picked it out of desperation, anything to find the Doctor guilty and sentence him to death, which will give the Valeyard all of the Doc's remaining regenerations. Also, the proceedings are more of a smokescreen to cover-up the Time Lords' genocide when they moved the Earth out of its normal location. The Time Lords, after all, are the ultimate hypocrites: it's all right for THEM (collectively) to commit genocide, but when the Doctor does it...ho boy, the axe is gonna fall!
Doesn't the Doctor leaving with Mel at the end of Trial of a Time Lord constitute a weird paradox? If she was plucked out of time to testify about events in the Doctor's future, shouldn't the Doctor have not actually met her yet from his perspective?
Long answer 'yes' with an 'if', longer answer 'no' with a 'but'. But it's possible that the Time Lords simply erased his mind of the whole affair. The Expanded Universe novels just suggest that 'present' Sixth Doctor returned Mel to the point in time where she'd been taken from the company of 'future' Sixth Doctor, but still remembered what was going to happen.
The Doctor dropped Mel off. In his personal timeline he then met her when she met him for the first time in her personal timeline. Later she was dropped off so she could be taken to the Doctor's Trial. He then found her again after his earlier self dropped her off. They continued travelling and Time and the Rani picks up on this. Happy?
(Then again, the whole "Trial" arc is very confusingly handled...)
In "The Trial of a Time Lord", the Doctor refers to the Valeyard with names such as 'Scrapyard' and 'Boneyard'. While they make sense to us, they wouldn't to the Time Lords: they are speaking Gallifreyan, and therefore wouldn't see the puns in the names.
Even if we can't suggest that Gallifreyian due to numerous temporal complexities sounds a lot like English (hey, they look human, stranger things have happened in the Whoniverse), why would the Doctor care about that? He's using the puns to express his overall disrespect and contempt for both the Valeyard and the legal proceedings he's been forced into, which would come across through his attitude even if the Time Lords didn't quite understand the reference. They're humourless and pompous killjoys, so they're not going to laugh either way.
The dark side of Svartos is meant to be an ice planet but no one is dressed for the cold; Ace is in shorts, Mel is in short sleeves and no coat and the little girl runs around in a dress.
It's also a shopping centre; presumably there's some kind of a heating system at work.
Doctor Who TV Movie
If Chang Lee had the only key, how the hell did the Master get into the TARDIS in the TV Movie? Did he find the spare key, or what? It's certainly plausible, but he probably wouldn't put it back when he was done.
Well, let's see. The first time we see him in the TARDIS it's as that blue snake thing and that's because the Doctor's giving his ashes a lift off of Skaro. The second time, he was with Lee, who had the key on him from when he gave the Doctor a lift to the hospital. In fact, the Doctor ended up having to use a spare key, which he kept in the POLICE BOX sign right behind the P.
In episode three of Survival the Master was in the middle of picking the lock when the Doctor caught up with him. Presumably this time he wasn't interrupted.
In the movie, Lee steals the Doctor's stuff. So where did he get the jelly babies? You can't get those in America, as far as I know.
The Doctor already had them before he arrived in San Francisco, presumably.
Actual jelly babies are scarce here, but there are a great many similar candies that the Doctor might take as second-best and mentally refer to the same way.
Watch the scene in Grace's office just before Lee walks in. There are two bags. Grace is holding a smaller one, the one with the jelly babies. The larger one, with the rest of the stuff, is on her desk. Presumably, when going through the larger bag, Grace took out the smaller one to look inside it. Lee took the larger bag before Grace could put it back. So, Grace hung onto it, then gave it back to the Doctor later.
So whatever happened with Ace?
In the EU, Ace either:
a) Dies heroically as a teenager saving the universe in some way or another (in a Doctor Who Magazine comic "Ground Zero").
b) Circa her mid-twenties, after a career as a combination of Dark Action Girl and Nineties Anti-Hero when by most fan accounts she turned into The Scrappy, parts from the Doctor, who gives her her own time motorcycle and polices the timeline of Paris (according to the novel Set Piece by Kate Orman).
c) Changes her name to Mc Shane and still travels with the Doctor and another companion named Hector or "Hex" (in the ongoing audio plays from Big Finish).
d) Or eventually becomes the last-but-one of the Time Lords after the death (and we mean literal death) of the Doctor in the Elseworlds-ish webcast Death Comes to Time. (Another Time Lord, the Minister of Chance, carries on for the Doctor.) (This last came out prior to the new series revival.) Obviously, the Expanded Universe contradicts itself a lot. Most notoriously in the case of Ace.
e) Had the series not gotten cancelled, script editor Andrew Cartmel favored turning into a Time Lady.
So humans can be turned into Time Lords? The more you know...
Although this has never been dealt with in the series, it is a common fan theory that "Time Lord" and "Gallifreyan" are not the same thing. Time Lord is a title received by going through the Academy, so a person who is not from Gallifrey could theoretically achieve it. On the other hand, the new series has referred to Time Lord as the Doctor's race, and he himself has mentioned having "Time Lord DNA", so this could all be utter nonsense.
The Invasion of Time features a group of "savage" Gallifreyans, ones who reside and survive outside the Citadel and clearly lack the cognitive abilites of their fellow Time Lords. Besides, it's been a recurring concept in the classic series that Gallifreyans were just another race of near-humans until Rassilon used his miraculous infinite source of energy, the Eye of Harmonynote actually a black hole, which he somehow discovered how to "harvest" for the invention of all their time-related technology, including the TARDISes, and to introduce and provide power to the regeneration process.
The answer has been revealed! Doctor Who S32 E7 "A Good Man Goes to War" confirms it - Amy Pond's daughter Melody aka River Song, is human, but has got traces of Time Lord DNA - exposure to the time vortex can make you a Time Lord even when you're still in the womb!
It can give you Time Lord features but even further messing around to try to create a Time Lord on the part of the villains only gave her some Time Lord DNA.
Maybe "Gazing into the heart of time" and whatever other fun little ceremony the Time Lords put the adepts through messed up their DNA, and thus "Time Lord DNA" differs from Human AND Gallifreyan DNA and they are thus a species of their own?
Again, from the novels, this is kind of true but with nanomachines messing with DNA rather than the gazing. I don't imagine this will ever make it to the series though.
According to The Sarah Jane Adventures there's at least one Dorothy running about raising money for charity on earth. That could be Ace.
In the scene immediately following the Doctor's regeneration, when he falls to his knees and does the big "WHO AM I??"— what the hell part of the hospital is he in? Why is there water on the floor? Why is everything broken?
It is presumably some sort of storage area. Most large building have a room somewhere that is full of very random, and often broken, things that no one knows what to do with. The water must be from a leak somewhere either in a pipe or where rain has come in.
If you'd permit me a WMG, I'd guess it was a wing of the hospital damaged by a recent earthquake.
If I remember correctly, that's the explanation given in the novelization.
My recollection is that it was an area of the hospital that was being redeveloped.
In the 3rd Doctor's episode "The Daemons" the Doctor insist that that there is no magic and every thing can be explained by Daemons "secret science." He describes it as invoking and channeling negative human emotions to create psychokinetic energy for various purposes. He also admits that the rituals are not mere window dressing. They have an actual purpose and can control the Daemon to some extent. The local witch confirms that what the Master is doing is exactly black magic. What the Master does also matches some definitions of magic out of the dictionary. So....why isn't what the Master doing considered magic? At best, isn't it both? Is the Doctor just being stubborn since his worldview is "everything can be explained by science" even if he cannot explain it?