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Is it just me, or is this a very confusingly-written example? Is someone able to rephrase it in a way that makes any sense at all? Because I have absolutely no idea what it\'s trying to say, or what its point is.
From the page:
"Even those still known can pose a problem. Most clergy and studious laymen are familiar with three of the four Greek words for love: 'eros,' meaning a romantic attraction; 'philia', more of a friendly type of caring or loyalty; and 'agape,' which in ancient Greek was the kind of unconditional, absolute love that would cause you to sacrifice your life for a person. All three are translated 'love' in all versions of the English Bible. While it's not always detrimental, it really subtracts from the passage where Jesus asks Peter 3 times if he loves him. The first two, he uses philia, the third time, agape."
The last sentence has it backwards. Jesus uses agape twice, and ends with philia. Peter uses philia all three times.
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How well does it match the trope?