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KingZeal
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The reason I ask is because you\'re asking us to prove that women have always been 50% of the population. And yet, you\'re making statements like \
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The reason I ask is because you\\\'re asking us to prove that women have always been 50% of the population. And yet, you\\\'re making statements like \\\"there is less need for males than females\\\" along with \\\"men have higher death rates\\\" as grand statements of fact. Even if these points ARE true (not agreeing they are, but just begging the question), there are other factors you haven\\\'t accounted for. For example, male offspring have also been far more coveted and less likely to be killed in infancy. Furthermore, a lack of men needed for pregnancy is irrelevant if the society in question had harsh punishments against polygyny and/or premarital sex.
Long story short, if you want to prove that the global population has ever been more than 50 to 60% female, you should bring accredited statistics, not musings on male expendability.
Long story short, if you want to prove that the global population has ever been more than 50 to 60% female, you should bring accredited statistics, not musings on male expendability.
