The necessary homosexuality tangent:
: Weeeelll.... one can argue, and I think it is fairly reasonable, that the bible didn't know anything of our modern idea of sexual orientation. I don't think they had any explanation for why people sometimes perform homosexual acts. All it banned was really those acts
themselves. And in fact, the only homosexual act explicitely forbidden is "a man lying with a man", i.e. male-to-male anal sex. Female homosexuality was probably a completely alien concept to those people. Or rather, female sexuality in general was alien.
Soo... how can the bible be against homosexuality when it clearly does not know, nor care, what homosexuality is
If you want to go down the literalist route, and be stringent about it, how exactly is it even possible for a man to lie with a man as with a woman
? Sorry, we just don't have the necessary orifices. So if you want to be literalist, you'll have to admit that the bible does not prohibit homosexuality.