History BeamMeUpScotty / ReligiousScripture

14th Dec '17 12:10:45 PM GothicProphet
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* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive these writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play too--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)

to:

* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive these writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play too--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.))
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5th Dec '17 8:34:56 AM ZSF
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* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive these writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)

to:

* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive these writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we too--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)
5th Dec '17 7:44:28 AM ZSF
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* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive the biblical writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)

to:

* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive the biblical these writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)
5th Dec '17 7:38:31 AM ZSF
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* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus “fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'” Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive the biblical writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)

to:

* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus “fulfilled "fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'” '" Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive the biblical writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)
5th Dec '17 7:34:34 AM ZSF
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\n----* The Bible actually does this to ''itself'' in a few places, generally when a New Testament writer is quoting scripture from the Old Testament. For instance, Matthew 27:9 asserts that Judas' betrayal of Jesus “fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.'” Actually, though, the scripture in question is found in Zechariah, not Jeremiah. There are also some instances of two verses being conflated, as in Mark 1:1-3, which provides a quote attributed to Isaiah that is really a combination of verses from Isaiah and Malachi. (Some translations correct the error by saying "the prophets" rather than "Isaiah.") These mistakes can typically be explained by the fact that the biblical writers were living in a period when holy texts took the form of large scrolls in temples, and were not readily accessible to most ordinary people. Considering they were almost certainly working from memory, it's impressive the biblical writers were as accurate as they were! (And, of course, translation and transcription errors may very well be at play as well--we don't have the original copy of any biblical text.)
27th Nov '17 4:28:03 PM CaptEquinox
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* KJV gets yet another wrong with Luke 2:14 - it reads, "Glory to God in the highest, and on Earth peace, good will toward men," when it should actually be saying something like "on Earth peace towards men of good will," or maybe "of His good will" - in any event, the sentiment is not that all men get peace, but only those in God's favor. Many translations, of course, get this right, but they're not the ones everyone quotes.

to:

* KJV gets yet another wrong with Luke 2:14 - it reads, "Glory to God in the highest, and on Earth peace, good will toward men," when it should actually be saying something like "on Earth peace towards men of good will," or maybe "of His good will" or "on whom His favor rests" - in any event, the sentiment is not that all men get peace, but only those in God's favor. Many translations, of course, get this right, but they're not the ones everyone quotes.
27th Nov '17 4:24:52 PM CaptEquinox
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* There is a misconception that the Old Testament commands "do not drink", nor does it say "do not get drunk". It ''implies'' "do not get ''too'' drunk". Leviticus 10:9 does warn people that they will ''die'' if they get drunk before coming to temple. The "Old Testament" is the same thing as the Hebrew Bible, and Jews are ''commanded'' to get blitzed on [[UsefulNotes/JewishHolidays Purim]].

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* There is a misconception that the Old Testament commands "do not drink", nor does it say "do not get drunk". It ''implies'' "do not get ''too'' drunk". Leviticus 10:9 does warn people that they will ''die'' if they get drunk before coming to temple. [[note]]Do not drink wine nor strong drink, thou, nor thy sons with thee, when ye go into the tabernacle of the congregation, lest ye die... And that ye may put difference between holy and unholy, and between unclean and clean.[[/note]] The "Old Testament" is the same thing as the Hebrew Bible, Bible or Tanakh[[note]]the order of the chapters is different and there are some significant differences in translation[[/note]], and Jews are ''commanded'' to get blitzed on [[UsefulNotes/JewishHolidays Purim]].
24th Nov '17 9:29:23 AM TomServo
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Added DiffLines:

** Neither is it a vague "run your fastest, jump your highest" inspiring quote. Paul is telling the Colossians about all the trials and unfair treatment he's had to go through, saying that only through Christ was he able to keep going on.
15th Jan '17 5:12:56 AM Mister6
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** It's also often said that the serpent had legs before God curses it for tricking Adam and Eve. but the text only state that afterwards he his cursed to crawl on his belly. Some Modern Interpreters hypothesize that he in fact had WINGS before the curse, and wash similar to a Seraph. Perhaps he was a chinese dragon?

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** It's also often said that the serpent had legs before God curses it for tricking Adam and Eve. Eve, but the text only state that afterwards he his cursed to crawl on his belly. Some Modern Interpreters hypothesize that he in fact had WINGS before the curse, and wash was similar to a Seraph. Perhaps he was a chinese dragon?Seraph.
28th Dec '16 2:01:52 PM Mr.Guye
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** It's also often said that the serpent had legs before God curses it for tricking Adam and Eve. but the text only state that afterwards he his cursed to crawl on his belly. Some Modern Interpretures hypotize that he in fact had WINGS before the curse, and wash simillar to a Seraph. Perhaps he was a chinese dragon?

to:

** It's also often said that the serpent had legs before God curses it for tricking Adam and Eve. but the text only state that afterwards he his cursed to crawl on his belly. Some Modern Interpretures hypotize Interpreters hypothesize that he in fact had WINGS before the curse, and wash simillar similar to a Seraph. Perhaps he was a chinese dragon?
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